chala Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 As the title says this is a really stupid question (which I think I know the answer to based on what just happened to me on a cash game on B365), but it's late and I'm knackered so excuse my dumbness. Recently been playing a game of poker most weeks with mates, and we've been playing all in situations like this: If player A has 50 and goes all in. Player B has 300 and calls. Player C has 500 and calls. Player D has 500 and calls. After the flop, Players B & C bet 150 and Player D folds, can Player D still win the side pot of 200? We've been playing that you can but that's wrong isn't it? For some strange reason I've been thinking because player D has called the full bet in the original pot, he's still entitled to win that pot even though he's folded out of the main pot that B & C are now in. Someone confirm the error of my ways! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Markpl1 Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 Re: Really Stupid Question! Yes its wrong if player d folds his hand that side pot is now player c's. You can't win if your hand is dead. Player b and c play for the first side pot and the main pot which player a is also in for. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aliensyndm Posted April 26, 2005 Share Posted April 26, 2005 Re: Really Stupid Question! Yip as Mark says. The all in man gets to see all 5 cards, and can win 50 chips from each player. Hence the pot he is playing for is 200 ( three 50s plus his own 50). Upon this bet being called you gather up the 200 chips and place them in front of player A to show this is all he can win. As soon as anyone folds from the hand they are not entitled to win any chips from any pots. I'm gonna complicate your example now. Say after the flop B bets 150 and both C and D call him. A is all in for 200. Now the turn happens. B bets his remaing 150. C raises all in. D calls. OK you now have to arrange the pots so you don't get confused. Pot 1 is 200 chips in front of player A. He can only win this 200. Everyone else is of course in for these chips. Pot 2 is 900 chips in front of player B. 300 of his own and 300 from C and 300 from D. Player B is in for this 900 plus the 200 in pot 1. Pot 3 is between C and D as they are the only ones who had enough chips. This is 400 chips. 200 from C and 200 from D. Only player C or D can win these chips. OK so everyone is all in and the river falls. Possibilites ? The dealers dream ie either player C or D has the best hand and they take the whole amount of chips on the table as they are in for all pots. If player B has the best hand, he takes the 900 from pot 2 and the 200 from pot A. The 400 from pot 3 goes to who has the best hand between C and D. If player A has the best hand he takes the 200 from pot 1. Now it is between B,C and D as to who collects pot 2. And only between C and D for pot 3. Note here it is possible to have the 3rd best hand and still get come chips back. If player C has is beaten by A and B....but can beat D he takes the 400 chips from pot 3 and only loses 100 chips !! Did that make sense ? Basically you can only win the amount of chips from each player than you have in front of you. If you have 200 chips, you can win 200 from each person and so on. Obviously things can get quite complicated when lots of people have lots of different chip amounts and lots of people are all in and lots of people have different strength hands. Just make sure you place the pots in front of people as you go along to keep it all nice and simple. Can take a while to organise but definitely worth it. Nightmare trying to sort it out in a oner at the end ! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
chala Posted April 26, 2005 Author Share Posted April 26, 2005 Re: Really Stupid Question! Cheers guys:ok That should clear up a few arguments this week. Now if only I could sodding win the game!:D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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