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Really Stupid Question!


chala

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As the title says this is a really stupid question (which I think I know the answer to based on what just happened to me on a cash game on B365), but it's late and I'm knackered so excuse my dumbness. Recently been playing a game of poker most weeks with mates, and we've been playing all in situations like this: If player A has 50 and goes all in. Player B has 300 and calls. Player C has 500 and calls. Player D has 500 and calls. After the flop, Players B & C bet 150 and Player D folds, can Player D still win the side pot of 200? We've been playing that you can but that's wrong isn't it? For some strange reason I've been thinking because player D has called the full bet in the original pot, he's still entitled to win that pot even though he's folded out of the main pot that B & C are now in. Someone confirm the error of my ways!

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