Question for GREX or anyone else

[kevraid]

I saw this question and wondered whats everyones opinion... I was l wondering if it would be profitable to bet the run line of the favorite and the alternate run line with the dog with the expectations that in the last 20000 games the final scores of the games were 1 run games 28.7 percent of the time. And you have to lay roughly 3-1 to bet this wager using a arbitrage calculator. I mean am i missing something or is this a plus ev situation. Thanks in advance for the input A example KC -1.5 @+135 Houston -1.5 @+210 using the arbitrage calculator i bet 60 on kc and 45.48 on Houston to for a guaranteed profit of 35.52 if the game doesnt end in a 1 run game. so my total wager is 105.48 @ 33.66 percent of my total wager so if games end in 1 run games 28.7 percent of the time is this a positive outcome?? I know it seems simple just wanna make sure im not doing something wrong or missing something

[Grex]

Re: Question for GREX or anyone else

....... I know it seems simple......

It may seem simple to you, Mr Kevraid...... but I'm afraid, with all the USA terminology, I haven't got a clue what you're talking about. Please excuse my ignorance :p