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Hi there, I am confused by Asian Handicap odds: They are described in the link below as follows: (https://www.sportsbookreview.com/forum/attachment.php?attachmentid=62968&d=1386982455) This makes it sound like the quarter should simply bet the average of the (0:0) and (½:0) handicap. However on pages 6-9 of the link above they show that although the payoffs of the (¼:0) are the simple averages of the payoffs for the (0:0) and (½:0) handicaps for both teams. Only the odds for the team that does not benefit from the handicap has odds that are the simple average of it's (0:0) and (½:0) handicaps. Can someone please explain to me why the odds for the team that receives the ¼ goal advantage has odds which are different to the simple average of the (0:0) and (½:0) handicaps. Given that the payoffs are the same it seems that the probabilities must be different but why are they different? Thanks Baz PS(I realise this a similar question has been asked before but the answers given there don't answer my question)