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Cashout: draw no bet versus 2-ways

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Can someone explain why books offer different  cashout amounts for the same stake/ odds when it comes to draw no bet versus other 2-way markets?


i mean let’s say 50€ stake at @1.75 draw no bet home, and @1.75 over 2.5 goals.


the cashout offer is different. Can someone explain the logic (apparently draw no bet has refund for fraws, but i meed a more analytic answer than this).



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I guess it will simply be that. There are 3 possible outcomes, the bet wins, loses or is a push, as opposed to other bets where the bet either wins or loses. I expect you'd see a similar phenomenon with >3 goals as well, where the push becomes a possibility. The possibility of a push will alter the mathematics when it comes to calculating cash out value.

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On 7/23/2019 at 10:37 PM, harry_rag said:

You might have a chance of getting a reply that meets your approval if you gave us an actual example quoting the differing cash out values!

sure, do you need odds  ( the same set of odds applied to draw no bet and over under), stake and cashout offer only?


10 euros bet placed at odd 1.90

case 1:

placement price is over/ uner

current price [1.80 for the selection over, 1.90 for under]

casout offer 9.25


case 2:

placement price is draw no bet

current price [1.80 for draw no bet home - selection , 1.90 for draw no bet away]

cashout offer 9.45


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Ok, not sure how real world those examples are (both being priced at 1.8 with the other option at 1.9) as I just had a quick look and found one firm offering different overrounds on the under/over market and DNB. Obviously if both selections were 1.8 but the other options were priced differently then it wouldn't be a surprise if the cashout values differed. 

If I've understood correctly, you're being given the chance to take a 0.75 point loss on the 1st bet compared to a 0.55 point loss on the second. By my maths, if you cashed out manually by "dutching" at 1.9 you'd end up with a 1.47 point loss, so both cashout options are favourable compared to just placing the opposite bet yourself.

Why the difference? Who knows! Commercial decision, programming error, largely random? In the way that some customers are allowed lower limits in some markets than in others, maybe the cashout values can fluctuate too. Maybe the firm's liabilities are factored into the cashout offer, e.g. if the original selection would be a heavy loser for them they might offer a more generous value than if that wasn't the case.

Sorry I can't be more helpful than that, having mulled it over while having a brew. Maybe no-one can give you a definitive answer. If you're that interested in the subject you could always sample 100s of cash out offers across different markets and firms and see what sort of patterns arise. You may find some firms offer consistent cashout values while others have inexplicable differences.

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